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  #1  
Old 04-20-2008, 03:56 AM
greenshirt greenshirt is offline
 
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Default talking with the opposite sex

Asalaamu Aalikum

I have heard it been said that if there is a man who has no sexual desire(because he is asexual, or maybe an eunuch) then he can enter upon the women, for he has no sexual desire so he would not fear fitnah. The only string attached is that the woman must not fear fitnah from him either. But if they do not fear fitnah, and the man is asexual(has no sexual desire towards ANY woman) then he is able to enter upon them. an Imam told me this while I was speaking with him.

I am just asking for clarification: Is this true?
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  #2  
Old 04-20-2008, 09:07 AM
Abu Fudayl Abu Fudayl is offline
 
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VII – The man who has no desire

It is permissible for a woman to show in front of a man who has no desire what she can show in front of her mahrams, because he has no interest in women, and he is allowed to see all of that. Ibn Qudaamah said: “Whoever no longer feels any desire, because of old age, impotence or incurable illness, or because he is a eunuch, … or a mukhannath (the effeminate man or a man who has female hormones) who feels no desire, the ruling that applies to such a man is the same as the ruling that applies to mahrams regarding looking at women, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): ‘… or old male servants who lack vigour…’ [al-Noor 24:31], i.e., those who feel no desire for women.” Ibn ‘Abbaas said: “This is the one of whom women do not feel shy.” He also said: “This is the mukhannath who is impotent (i.e., cannot have an erection).”

It was reported that Mujaahid and Qutaadah said: “This is the one who has no interest in women, but if he is a mukhannath who feels desire and knows about women, then the rules that apply to others apply also to him, because ‘Aa’ishah said: ‘A mukhannath entered upon the wives of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him), and they used to think that he was a man who felt no physical desires, but the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) entered upon us when this man was describing a woman and saying ‘When she comes in, she comes on four, and when she goes out, she goes on eight.’ The Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: ‘Do I not see that this man knows who is here? This one should never enter upon you.’ And he was kept away after that.” (Reported by Abu Dawood and others).

Ibn ‘Abd al-Barr said: “The mukhannath is not only the one who is known to be promiscuous. The mukhannath is the one who looks so much like a woman physically that he resembles women in his softness, speech, appearance, accent and thinking. If he is like this, he would have no desire for women and he would not notice anything about them. This is one of those who have no interest in women who were permitted to enter upon women. Do you not see that the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) did not prevent that mukhannath from entering upon his wives at first, but when he heard him describing the daughter of Ghaylaan and realized that he knew about women, he commanded that he should be kept away.” (Al-Mughni, 7/463; al-Sharh al-Kabeer ‘ala Matan al-Muqni’, 7/347-348).

Extracted from http://www.islamqa.com/index.php?ref=2198&ln=eng
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  #3  
Old 04-20-2008, 01:36 PM
greenshirt greenshirt is offline
 
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asalaamu alaikum

so in laymans terms, a man who has no sexual desire towards women(he is asexual, or an eunuch, etc) can speak to women, correct?

wa salaam
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  #4  
Old 04-21-2008, 01:15 AM
hope hope is offline
 
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Default take into consideration...

Assalaamu'alaykum,


If the man has no desire, women may have, and fitna and shayton are always around and we should encourage good and forbid evil. Under certain circumstances are we allowed by permission from Allah's message, so take into consideration the other gender and one should be aware of one's tongue and eyes, as talk can spread as fast as lightening.


Respect, modesty, shyness, should all be considered and of course, the women's husbands
.


And Allah knows best


hope
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  #5  
Old 04-23-2008, 01:46 AM
greenshirt greenshirt is offline
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by hope View Post
Assalaamu'alaykum,


If the man has no desire, women may have, and fitna and shayton are always around and we should encourage good and forbid evil. Under certain circumstances are we allowed by permission from Allah's message, so take into consideration the other gender and one should be aware of one's tongue and eyes, as talk can spread as fast as lightening.


Respect, modesty, shyness, should all be considered and of course, the women's husbands
.


And Allah knows best


hope
good points!
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  #6  
Old 04-30-2008, 12:43 AM
greenshirt greenshirt is offline
 
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so, does anyone else have any information on this? i ask because i have wondered this for so long and have not gotten a concrete answer.

wa salaam
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  #7  
Old 04-30-2008, 12:55 AM
Ayman bin khaled Ayman bin khaled is offline
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bismilllah alrahman alraheem

As you noticed one of the main reasons that speaking to opposite sex is not allowed because of fear of Fitna!

If it is argued you have no fear of having sexual desires then how can you gurantee this with the opposite sex you enter on or speak to!!

On other point, The Prophet did not allow , even those who have no sexual desirs to be with women as proven in authentic Hadeeths ( although he allowed in the beginning then abrogated this order).

So it is better to avoid it if there is no need.

This does not mean no women or men are allowed to communicate but within limits ad guideline. like sale, trade, inquiries, knowledge and etc. There has to be a reason to communicate.

Keep in mind this woman is surelly someone's sister, daughter or mother that none of her male relatve will like seing her talking as it is the normal Fitra. smile

Wallahu A'lam
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  #8  
Old 04-30-2008, 01:17 AM
greenshirt greenshirt is offline
 
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asalaamu alaikum

so you are saying that at first, asexuals(those who lacked sexual desires) were able to enter upon the women, but then it was later abrogated.

but this seems to contradict what islam qa says:
Quote:
VII – The man who has no desire

It is permissible for a woman to show in front of a man who has no desire what she can show in front of her mahrams, because he has no interest in women, and he is allowed to see all of that.
it seems to mention nothing in the section(which you can see in the second post) about an abrogation or anything. this is why i am confused!

wa salaam
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  #9  
Old 12-07-2008, 01:24 PM
greenshirt greenshirt is offline
 
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asalaamu alaikum again

i am sorry to revive this old topic, but i think i need some clarification because my roommate(non practicing muslim) is looking into re-entering islam, saying his salah again, etc.. but he has many questions and this is one of them he had.(which is why i asked it a while back)

my roommate and i grew up together and we are both albanians living in virginia. i moved in with him recently because i got a job offer here in northern virginia. since then, we have been talking a lot more, and he has brought up many issues. i am not a scholar, so i usually either look up a fatwa for him or ask for clarification because i don't want to say something wrongly.

one fatwa that my roommate presented to me a few weeks ago, was this..
Quote:
Originally Posted by http://www.islamweb.net
The interpretation of the verse in which Allaah Says (what means): {…or those male attendants having no physical desire.}[Quran 24:31], means the male servants who have no inclination or desires towards women. For instance a stupid man who does not know anything about women, or that he has no sexual desires at all, or that he is impotent (where his penis does not harden), or whose penis has been cut. The scholars from our Salaf may Allaah have mercy upon them have different opinions on this but their opinions are summarized in what we mentioned here.
http://www.islamweb.net/ver2/Fatwa/S...ang=E&Id=91587
so, this fatwa seems to be saying that if a man has no sexual desires, he may enter upon the women. this is also what islam-qa seems to say. but as i ask around like from fellow muslims, they seem to give me different answers!

so, does anyone know? maybe there is a difference of opinion on this matter? maybe the english text i am reading is wrongly interpreted?

my roommate is wondering for personal reasons so i thought i would revive this topic and see, instead of creating a new one.

wa salaam
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  #10  
Old 12-30-2008, 09:44 AM
Bassam Zawadi Bassam Zawadi is offline
 
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Lady Cooke, a kaafir said:

Quote:
The more mixing there is, the more illegitimate children there are. It is no secret that this is a great calamity for women. O fathers, do not be tempted by a few pennies that your daughters may earn when working in factories and the like, when you know how they are going to end up. Teach them how to keep away from men as statistics tell us that calamities resulting from fornication increase when there is more mixing between men and women. Don’t you see that most of the mothers of illegitimate children are those who work in factories or as servants in houses, and those women who are more exposed to men? Were it not for doctors who give prescriptions to cause abortions, we would have seen many times more illegitimate children than the numbers we see now.
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  #11  
Old 12-30-2008, 10:13 AM
Oum Ahmad Mohamed Oum Ahmad Mohamed is offline
 
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Lady cooke is ancient. Times have changed, what she has said bears no weight upon the muslim and free mixing does not necessitate illegitimate children or an illegitimate relationship.
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  #12  
Old 12-30-2008, 10:29 AM
Bassam Zawadi Bassam Zawadi is offline
 
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Quote:
free mixing does not necessitate illegitimate children or an illegitimate relationship.
She didn't say that it necessitates, but that there is indeed a strong correlation between the two. No sane person can deny that.
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